Let $Q:X\to Y$ be a quotient map, i.e. a map between normed spaces such that $B_Y(0,1)=Q(B_X(0,1))$ ($Q$ maps the unit balls onto each other). Then $Q$ is surjective and $Q\in L(X,Y)$ with $\|Q\|=1$.
I already showed that $Q$ is surjective:
Let $y\in Y$, then define $\tilde y=\frac{y}{\|y\|}$ and there exists $\tilde x\in B_X(0,1)$ such that $\tilde y=Q(\tilde x)$. Using the linearity we get $$y=\|y\| \tilde y =\|y\|Q(\tilde x)=Q(\|y\|\tilde x)=Q(x) $$ with $x:=\|y\|\tilde x$ and hence $Q$ is surjective.
Also we have $\sup_{x\in B_X(0,1)}\|Qx\|_y=\sup_{y\in B_Y(0,1)}\|y\|_Y \geq 1$ since $S^1_Y = \{y\in Y: \ \|y\|=1\}\subset B_Y(0,1)$, and $\|Qx\|_Y\leq 1$ since $Qx\in B_Y(0,1)$ and hence $\|Q\|=1$.
Now I only have to prove that $Q$ is linear, but I have no idea how to do this. Can anyone help me out? Thanks!