Let $T: \Bbb R^3 \rightarrow \Bbb R^3$ be a linear transformation satisfying \begin{align*} T(0,1,1) =& (-1,1,1) \\ T(1,0,1) =& (1,-1,1) \\ T(1,1,0) =& (1,-1,0) . \end{align*}
Is it necessary true that $\ker(T) = \operatorname{Sp}\{(1,-1,1)\}$ ? Well, I tried to say that we know that $\operatorname{Im}(T) = \operatorname{Sp}\{T(0,1,1),\,T(1,0,1),\,T(1,1,1)\}$
So, $\operatorname{Im}(T) = \operatorname{Sp}\{(-1,1,1),\,(1,-1,1),\,(1,-1,0)\}$ which means $\operatorname{Sp}\{(1,-1,1)\} \in \operatorname{Im}(T)$ and also $(1,1,1)$ is linearly independent by $2$ other vectors which are in $\operatorname{Im}(T)$.
Now, how can I prove that $\operatorname{Sp}\{(1,1,1)\}$ not inside $\ker(T)$? or maybe $\operatorname{Sp}\{(1,1,1)\} \in \ker (T)$ which makes it $\operatorname{Sp}\{(1,1,1)\} = \ker (T)$?