Intuitively, for every $n \ge 2$ I can find an element $u=a^{1\over{n}}$with $a \in \mathbb{Q}$ and an irreducible polynomial in $\mathbb{Q}[X]$: $u^{n}-a=0$. As $u \notin \mathbb{Q}$, then $[\mathbb{Q}(u)/\mathbb{Q}]=n$ which is a finite extension.
Is this reasoing OK?
Edit: I guess I need to prove that the polynomial is actually irreducible using Eisenstein's criterion.