I've encountered this in a book: The language $ \{ a^n0b^n \mid n ≥ 1\} ∪ \{a^n1b^{2n} \mid n ≥ 1\}$has no predictive grammar.
(A predictable grammar is that in which no two rules of production for a same symbol have the same starting symbol)
I don't understand it. If I'm reading the definition of the language right a grammar for it could be just
start -> a 0term b | a 1term bb
0term -> a 0term b | 0
1term -> a 1term bb | 1
Which seems predictable to me.
Thanks.
– carllacan Jun 05 '14 at 20:14