Is $$O(1-cf(n))=O(1-f(n))$$ for any constant $c$ and any function $f$? I am afraid not. Could you tell me how to get from $$1-cf(n)$$ to $$1-f(n)?$$ Anything I can think of is $$1-cf(n)=c(1-f(n))+1-c=O(1-f(n))+1-c$$ but this does not help.
Asked
Active
Viewed 24 times
I have that $0<f(n)<1$, that is a bounded function, but $f(n)\notin o(1)$.
But somehow, the first Statement looks trivial?
Because I am little bit confused, I try to state the Problem more precisely:
$$f(x):=Pr[Bin(n,p)\geq x]$$ Does it hold then for a constant $0<c<1$ that $$1-c f(x)=O(1-f(x))=O(Pr[Bin(n,p)<x])$$
The Point may be, and this is what might be misleading (I'm sorry for that), that the asymptotics is in $n$ and not in $x$, $x$ is a constant.
– user136457 Jun 06 '14 at 12:44$$f(n):=Pr[Bin(n,p) \geq x]$$ where $x$ is a constant. So this function does not have a finite Domain, does it?
So my Problem is that I have $1-c f(n)$ and I want to prove that it is in $O(Pr[Bin(n,p)< x])$. Does this work?
– user136457 Jun 06 '14 at 12:56