Wikipedia (at the time I write this) has two mutually inconsistent entries (one after the other !, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse-gamma_distribution#Properties):
$$X \sim \mbox{Gamma}(k, \theta) \Leftrightarrow \dfrac{1}{X} \sim \mbox{Inv-Gamma}(k, \theta^{-1})$$
$$ X \sim \mbox{Gamma}(\alpha, \beta) \Leftrightarrow \dfrac{1}{X} \sim \mbox{Inv-Gamma}(\alpha, \beta)$$
My questions are:
- Do these two definitions reflect different conventions? Or one of them is plain wrong?
- Let's assume the mean of the inverse gamma mean is $\dfrac \beta{\alpha-1}$ (as in the Wikipedia page). Which one of the above definitions is consistent with this?