I have a proof of the following theorem.
Let X be a metric space. "Every sequence in X has a Cauchy subsequence" implies that "$\forall\epsilon > 0, \exists $ a finite set T, s.t. $\forall x\in X, d(x,T)<\epsilon $."
Could you check that my proof is correct or not?
Proof) Suppose, by way of contradiction, $\exists\epsilon > 0,$ s.t. $\forall $ finite set T, $\exists x\in X, d(x,T)\geq\epsilon.$
pick any $x_1\in X.$
Let $T_1=\{x_1\}.$
Then, $\exists{\epsilon}_1 > 0,$ s.t. $\exists x_2\in X, d(x_2,T_1)\geq{\epsilon}_1.$
Let $T_2=\{x_1, x_2\}.$
Then, $\exists{\epsilon}_2 > 0,$ s.t. $\exists x_3\in X, d(x_3,T_2)\geq{\epsilon}_2.$
Let $T_3=\{x_1, x_2, x_3\}.$
Repeat this process to obtain a sequence ${x_i}$ in X.
Then this sequence doesn't have a cauchy subsequence, since $\exists\epsilon > 0$ for any i,j in N (the set of natural numers), $d(x_i,x_j)\geq\epsilon $, by letting $\epsilon$ = max $\{ {\epsilon}_1, {\epsilon}_2, \dots \}.$
Therefore, we have obtained a contradiction.
At the very last proof of the theorem, I'm not sure I could take the maximum to get the desired epsilon.. please help.