Can we prove this? What is the name for this inequality?
Or is there a counter example?
$$\forall\;x_i\gt0\mid\prod_{i=1}^{n}x_i=1,\;\;\;\;\;\sum_{i=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{x_i}\geqslant1.$$
Can we prove this? What is the name for this inequality?
Or is there a counter example?
$$\forall\;x_i\gt0\mid\prod_{i=1}^{n}x_i=1,\;\;\;\;\;\sum_{i=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{x_i}\geqslant1.$$
If $\prod x_i=1$ then some $x_{i_0}\leq 1$ and thus $\sum\frac{1}{x_i} \geq\frac{1}{x_{i_0}}\geq 1$.
Thomas Andrews has answered the question as stated, but, in fact, you have $\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{x_{i}} \geq n$ under those circumstances, by the arithmetic-geometric mean inequality.