I'm reading some extreme value theory and in particular regular variation in Resnick's 1987 book Extreme Values, Regular Variation, and Point Processes, and several times he has claimed uniform convergence of a sequence of functions because "monotone functions are converging pointwise to a continuous limit". I am finding this reasoning a little dubious.
EDIT: Thanks to some comments below I realized I was confused, I really want each $f_n$ to be a monotone function on $[a,b]$, so it isn't quite like Dini's theorem. Formally I am wondering:
Let $f_n:[a,b]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be a sequence of non-decreasing functions converging pointwise to the continuous function $f$. Is the convergence uniform?
My thoughts:
I have been thinking that since the set of discontinuities of each function $f_n$ is at most countable, the set of discontinuities of the entire sequence is at most countable...something something? Any thoughts would be greatly appreciated!