If $x^n-py^n-qz^n$ is exactly divisible by $x^2-(ay+bz)x+abyz$ , then prove that $\frac p{a^n}-\frac q{b^n}-1=0$
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Any thoughts on the problem? – DanZimm Jun 17 '14 at 08:52
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@DanZimm You may try to use factor theorem for solving this problem. – Snehil Sinha Jun 17 '14 at 08:56
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Are u sure it is $p/a^n-q/b^n=1$. I think it should be $p/a^n+q/b^n=1$. – Samrat Mukhopadhyay Jun 17 '14 at 09:07
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@SamratMukhopadhyay no i am sure that my question is correct.But if you think it should be $p/a^n+q/b^n=1$ then please send your answer according to it. – Snehil Sinha Jun 17 '14 at 09:10
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I have just given an answer. – Samrat Mukhopadhyay Jun 17 '14 at 09:11
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thanx for help! – Snehil Sinha Jun 17 '14 at 09:12
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Erom the second quadratic we can see that the roots are $$\alpha=ay,\beta=bz$$ which implies that they are roots of $x$ for the first equation also. So, we get the equations $$a^ny^n=py^n+qz^n\\ b^nz^n=py^n+qz^n$$ Hence, $$ a^ny^n=py^n+q(ay)^n/b^n\Rightarrow p/a^n+q/b^n=1$$
Samrat Mukhopadhyay
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Mukhopa Can you plz explain how did u derive $a^ny^n=py^n+q(ay)^n/b^n⇒p/a^n+q/b^n=1 $ – Snehil Sinha Jun 19 '14 at 06:49
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