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If $x^n-py^n-qz^n$ is exactly divisible by $x^2-(ay+bz)x+abyz$ , then prove that $\frac p{a^n}-\frac q{b^n}-1=0$

user91500
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Snehil Sinha
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1 Answers1

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Erom the second quadratic we can see that the roots are $$\alpha=ay,\beta=bz$$ which implies that they are roots of $x$ for the first equation also. So, we get the equations $$a^ny^n=py^n+qz^n\\ b^nz^n=py^n+qz^n$$ Hence, $$ a^ny^n=py^n+q(ay)^n/b^n\Rightarrow p/a^n+q/b^n=1$$