Let $M$ be a manifold and let $\bigwedge^\text{top}TM$ be the top exterior product of the tangent bundle. Then this becomes a line bundle. Let $g$ be any metric on $\bigwedge^\text{top}TM$ and define $\hat{M}:=\{x\in\bigwedge^\text{top}TM:g(x,x)=1\}$, thus $\hat{M}$ is the space of all unit vectors. My question is: Why is $\pi:\hat{M}\rightarrow M$ a smooth double cover which is independent of the choice of the metric and why $\hat{M}$ has a natural orientation. I thought that the independence is implied by the fact that we have a line bundle. Moreover: $M$ is orientable iff $\hat{M}=M\coprod M$. Can someone help me, with this because i have no idea, how to start. Thanks.
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Do you know the fact that $M$ is orientable if and only if the top exterior power of $T M$ has a nowhere-zero global section? – Zhen Lin Jun 20 '14 at 15:25
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@Zhen Lin: I don't know this fact. – Rempe5555 Jun 20 '14 at 15:28
1 Answers
Here are some hints:
The projection $\pi:\hat M \to M;(p,\omega)\mapsto p$ is the restriction of the smooth projection $\wedge^{top}TM \to M$.
For the degree of the cover, think about the preimage $\pi^{-1}(p)$. How many "unit-length" elements $\omega$ are there in $\wedge^{top} T_pM$?
In terms of it being a local diffeomorphism, think about what a neighborhood of $(p,\omega)$ in $\wedge^{top} TM$ looks like. The smoothness of the metric $g$ (as $p$ varies) is crucial here.
How are you defining orientability? If it is a "smooth assignment" of equivalence classes of bases for $T_p \hat M$ (positive vs negative bases), then you can use a unit-length top-dimensional form $\omega$ to give each basis of $T_p \hat M$ a sign. The same thing goes for $T_{(p,\omega)}\hat M$.
As for linking the orientability (or lack thereof) of $M$ to the connectivity of $\hat M$, think about showing that a certain subset of $\hat M$ is open and closed, hence a connected component.
To see that $\hat M$ is independent of $g$, first convince yourself that you can define a set bijection between $\hat M_g$ and $\hat M_{g'}$ (respectively constructed using $g$ and $g'$). Show that the obvious map for a set bijection is smooth.
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Thanks :) i think $\pi^{-1}(p)$ has cardinality $2$ and is therefore a double cover. What do you mean by: How many unit length elements are there? – Rempe5555 Jun 20 '14 at 17:35
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@Rempe5555: $\wedge^{top}T_pM$ is a 1-dimensional vector space, no? So think about how many elements $\omega \in \wedge^{top} T_p M$ can satisfy $g(\omega,\omega)=1$? Recall that $g(a \omega,\omega)=g(\omega,a\omega)=a g(\omega,\omega)$. – Kyle Jun 20 '14 at 17:57