To Solve: $\displaystyle \frac{\partial z}{\partial x} \left \{1-\left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\right)^2\right \}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}(1-z)$
My Attempt:
Assume $z$ is a function of $\displaystyle u=x+ay$, where a is an arbitrary constant.
Therefore, $\displaystyle p= \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}=\frac{dz}{du}\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=\frac{dz}{du}$
and $\displaystyle q= \frac{\partial z}{\partial y}=\frac{dz}{du}\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=a\frac{dz}{du}$
$\displaystyle \frac{dz}{du}-a^2\left(\frac{dz}{du}\right)^3=a\frac{dz}{du}(1-z)$
When I cancel $\displaystyle \frac{dz}{du}$ from each side during simplication, is it justified that I am assuming that $\displaystyle \frac{dz}{du}\neq 0$?
I don't know how that assumption holds true. Please advise.