let $(e_1,e_2,...,e_5)$ canonical basis of $R^5$, $V=(a,b,c,d,e)\in R^5$ with $V\neq(0,0,0,0,0)$. we consider $f:R^5\to R^5$ and its matrix :
$$Mat(f) = M= \begin{pmatrix} a&a&a&a&a\\ b&b&b&b&b\\ c&c&c&c&c\\ d&d&d&d&d\\ e&e&e&e&e\\ \end{pmatrix}$$
It's rank is $rg(f)=1$ because $V\neq(0,0,0,0,0)$ and all columns are the same. So $Dim(Im(f))=1$ and because of the rank theorem, $Dim(Ker(f))=4$
Basis of $Im(f)=Vect\begin{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}a\\b\\c\\d\\e\\\end{pmatrix}\end{pmatrix}$ and by solving with $X=\begin{pmatrix}x\\y\\z\\t\\u\\ \end{pmatrix}$, $ MX=0$ I find : $Ker(M)=Vect\begin{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}-1\\1\\0\\0\\0\end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix}-1\\0\\1\\0\\0\\\end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix}-1\\0\\0\\1\\0\end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix}-1\\0\\0\\0\\1\end{pmatrix}\end{pmatrix}$
I was then asked a condition on $a,b,c,d,e$ for $V\in Ker(f)$ and I found $a+b+c+d+e=0$ by solving $MV=0$ And next is a question I need to verify:
Question : let this condition be fullfilled, let $(\epsilon_1,\epsilon_2,\epsilon_3,\epsilon_4)$ basis of $Ker(f)$ chosen so $\epsilon_4=V$ Complete it in a basis of E (here $R^5$) and write the matrix in the new basis
Verification : what I did : Is it okay for me to set $V = \begin{pmatrix}-1\\0\\0\\0\\1\end{pmatrix}$ so it would mean that my matrix $M$ would become $M=\begin{pmatrix}-1&-1&-1&-1&-1\\0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\\1&1&1&1&1\end{pmatrix}$,$\epsilon_1=\begin{pmatrix}-1\\1\\0\\0\\0\end{pmatrix}$, and then respectively for $\epsilon_2,\epsilon_3, ...$ or should I solve with $V=\begin{pmatrix}a\\b\\c\\d\\e\end{pmatrix}$ ? Because I don't understand what they're looking for if it's a general answer or a simple base to create.
because what I could find was my new basis (direcltly made into a base changing matrix because it's hard to type everything) : $P=\begin{pmatrix}-1&-1&-1&-1&-1\\1&0&0&0&0\\0&1&0&0&0\\0&0&1&0&0\\0&0&0&1&0\end{pmatrix}$
then I solved and answered $M'=P^-1MP=\begin{pmatrix}0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&-1\\0&0&0&0&0\end{pmatrix}$
Then, right after this question, the big problem:
Question: now, $V\notin Ker(f)$ I have to find a basis so B matrix would be : B = \begin{pmatrix}\gamma&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0&0\end{pmatrix}
and of course I need to precise $\gamma$
So here, I thought I could use $V=\begin{pmatrix}-1\\0\\0\\0\\0\end{pmatrix}$ and keep my $Ker(f)$ basis I found before and use the same formula $B=P^-1M'P$ but it didn't sound good at all ... Because my $\gamma=0$ which is nonsense ... I'm a bit confused and it makes me stuck
Thank you in advance and sorry for the big stuff.