I want to prove this. I have no idea where to start. How do I do it?
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1Let $y = \arcsin x$. Then $x = \sin y$. Use $dy/dx = \dfrac{1}{dx/dy}$. – M. Vinay Jun 26 '14 at 16:57
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Let $y=\arcsin(x).$
Then $$ \sin(y)=x\tag{*}.$$
Now differentiate $(*)$ with respect to $x$, to give $$\cos(y) \cdot\frac{dy}{dx}=1,$$ from which we get $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{1}{\color{green}{\cos(y)}}.$$
But if we use the identity $\sin^2(y)+\cos^2(y) \equiv 1$ and re-arrange it, we get $$\color{green}{\cos(y) \equiv \sqrt{1-\sin^2(y)}}$$
Subbing this into our $\frac{dy}{dx},$ we have $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\sin^2(y)}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}.$$ $\square$
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