Very likely you did something like this:
On the right arc $P_1P_2$, $\mathrm{d}\vec\ell=\vec{e}_\theta\mathrm{d}\theta$, hence
$$\vec F\cdot\mathrm{d}\vec\ell=1.$$
On this path, $\theta$ ranges from $-\pi/2$ to $\pi/2$, hence the circulation is $\pi$.
On the left arc $P_1P_2$, $\mathrm{d}\vec\ell=-\vec{e}_\theta\mathrm{d}\theta$, hence
$$\vec F\cdot\mathrm{d}\vec\ell=-1.$$
On this path, $\theta$ ranges from $3\pi/2$ to $\pi/2$ (it's decreasing!), hence the circulation is $-1\times(\pi/2-3\pi/2)=-1\times(-\pi)=\pi$.
Let's recall the general method to compute the circulation of a vector field along a path: the first thing you need is a parametrization of this path, say
$$[a,b]\longrightarrow\mathbb{R}^2:t\longmapsto\bigl(x(t),y(t)\bigr).$$
(with $a<b$, and that's important).
Then, given a vector field $\vec F$, the circulation is given by
$$\mathscr{C}=\int_a^b\vec F\bigl(x(t),y(t)\bigr)\cdot\bigl(x'(t),y'(t)\bigr)\,\mathrm{d}t.$$
Now in your case, the left arc $P_1P_2$ is parametrized by
$$\begin{cases}x(t)=\cos(t)\\y(t)=\sin(t)\end{cases}\qquad t\in[-\pi/2,\pi/2].$$
Observe that $\bigl(x'(t),y'(t)\bigr)=\vec e_\theta$
hence
$$\mathscr{C}=\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\,\mathrm{d}\theta=\pi$$
(since on this path, $r=1$).
The right arc $P_1P_2$ is parametrized by
$$\begin{cases}x(t)=-\cos(t)\\y(t)=\sin(t)\end{cases}\qquad t\in[-\pi/2,\pi/2].$$
Observe that $\bigl(x'(t),y'(t)\bigr)=-\vec e_\theta$
hence
$$\mathscr{C}=-\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\,\mathrm{d}\theta=-\pi$$
(since on this path, $r=1$).
Try to see where (and why) your reasoning was wrong.
$and$$around your equations to make them look pretty :D – DanZimm Jun 29 '14 at 17:15