In my book, the defination of Fourier transform is $$F(\lambda)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(t)e^{i\lambda t}dt$$ While the reverse one is: $$f(x)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}F(\lambda)e^{-i\lambda t}dt$$ But in other place (here as well), I always encounter another "just on the contrary" system like: $$F(\lambda)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(t)e^{-i\lambda t}dt$$ You can see that the sign of exponential part is changed.
Why will this happen?