I'm very confused about this. When finding the derivative of sine, we have
$\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{\sin(x+h)-\sin x}{h}=\dfrac{\lim_{h\to0}(\sin(x+h)-\sin x)}{\lim_{h\to0}h}=\dfrac{\lim_{h\to0}(\sin x\cos h+\sin h\cos x-\sin x)}{\lim_{h\to0}h}=\dfrac{\lim_{h\to0}(\sin x\cos h-x)+\lim_{h\to0}(\sin h\cos x)}{\lim_{h\to0}h}=\dfrac{0+\lim_{h\to0}(\sin h\cos x)}{\lim_{h\to0}h}=\cos x\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{\sin h}{h}=\cos x$
Is this proof correct? If not, why is it correct to say $\lim_{x\to0}\dfrac1{x^2}=\dfrac1{0}=\infty$? Please explain.