Let $a>0$ and $$\langle f_a,\psi\rangle=\int_{|x|>a} \frac{\psi(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_{|x|<a} \frac{\psi(x)-\psi(0)}{|x|}dx$$ Prove that $f_a$ does not depend on a.
Proof: To prove that $f_a$ does not depend on a we have to take the derivate of the $f_a$ and set it equal to 0.
$$\langle f_a',\psi \rangle =-\langle f_a,\psi'\rangle=-[\int_{|x|>a} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_{|x|<a} \frac{\psi'(x)-\psi'(0)}{|x|}dx] =-[\int_{|x|>a} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_{|x|<a} \psi'(c)dx] =-[\int_{-\infty}^{-a} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_a^{\infty} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_{|x|<a} \psi'(c)dx] =-[\int_{-\infty}^{-a} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_a^{\infty} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_{|x|<a} \psi'(c)dx] =-[\int_{-\infty}^{-a} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + \int_a^{\infty} \frac{\psi'(x)}{|x|} dx + 2a\psi'(c)$$
How do I proceed?