I have three rings $A,B,C$ and ring homomorphisms $f: A \rightarrow B$ and $g: B \rightarrow C$, which are both surjective. Is it true that $C$ is isomorphic to $$ A / (\ker(f), \ker(g)) ? $$ If so how can I show this? Thanks!
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Well, it's not quite true. $\ker(g)$ is not a subset of $A$, so you can't take the quotient. The ring $C$ will be isomorphic to $A/\ker(g\circ f)$.
Keenan Kidwell
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Sasha Patotski
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Well, it can't be since $\ker(g)$ is an ideal in $B$, but not in $A$.
Hint: What is the kernel of $g\circ f$?
A.P.
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Could the downvoter please explain her reasons? – A.P. Jul 09 '14 at 19:36