I have $x \cdot \partial_x \delta(x-y)$, and want to simplify it. I believe it works like this: I use $x$ as a test-function and use integration by parts $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x \cdot \partial_x \delta(x-y) dx = \delta(x-y) x - \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \delta(x-y) dx $$
As x is anti-symmetric, the first part cancels, and we get
$$x \cdot \partial_x \delta(x-y)=-\delta(x-y)$$
Is that true?