As working on a crystallographic project, I saw somebody claimed that they can implement FFT on the following formula: $$F(q)=\sum_rf(r,q)\exp(iqr)$$ How could they do FFT if $f$ is function of both $r$ and $q$?
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That's bogus for a lot of reasons, not the least of which is that the number of variables of the transform and the original function have to match up always. – Adam Hughes Jul 10 '14 at 18:33