I know its answer is $3\cdot5$ but I want to ask that is the following true-
$$(a/b)\bmod(p) = (a\bmod(p))\cdot((1/b)\bmod(p)))\bmod(p)$$
(where $a$ and $b$ are any integers and $p$ is a prime number.)
$(1/b)\bmod(p)$ can be solved by Euler's formula but i don't get correct answer if i solve it this way, how to solve this?