I have a question that is giving me some minor grief:
If $A$ is a closed set containing all rational numbers $r \in [0, 1]$, then show that $[0, 1] \subset A$.
I don't really understand this question - surely that set of all values $[0, 1]$ contains infinitely more points that the set of rational numbers over the same interval? Am I missing something large?
Thanks in advance.