Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be smooth and satisfy $f(-x)=f(x)$ for all x. Define $g:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ by $g(x)=f(\sqrt{x})$. Is $g$ necessarily smooth at $0$?
I guess the answer is positive. $f$ being an even function implies that all its derivatives of odd order vanish at $0$, hence when substituting $\sqrt{x}$ in the Taylor series of $f$ around $0$, one obtains a power series in $x$. This is obviously not a proof, as most of the smooth functions are not analytic.
Showing that $f$ is differentiable is easy, and working a little harder one also shows that it is twice differentiable. It seems like it should work the same for derivatives of larger orders, and yet, I haven't found a satisfactory proof.