Problem:
The fact that a system of rational linear equations $Ax=0$ has a nontrivial complex solution (not necessarily rational), does it imply that it also admit a nontrivial rational one?
One solution is as follows:
Write $Ax = 0$, where $x = (x_1,\cdots,x_n)^T$ is the complex solution. Let $V$ be the $\mathbb{Q}$-span of $\{x_1,\cdots,x_n\}$, and let $\{y_1,\cdots,y_m\}$ be a $\mathbb{Q}$-basis of $V$. Then we have $By =x$, where $B$ is a matrix of rational entries and $y = (y_1,\cdots,y_m)^T$. Then from $ABy = 0$ we deduce that $AB= 0$ since $y$ is a $\mathbb{Q}$-basis and $AB$ is a rational matrix. Thus any column of $B$ is a rational solution of the original equation.
Question:
Is it true for "inhomogeneous" linear systems? That is: if $A$ is a rational matrix and $b$ is a rational vector such that $Ax = b$ has a complex solution, does it imply that it also has a rational solution?