How can we compute a sequence $A_n$ of positive real numbers, such that $\displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{A_n\ln(A_n)}=1$?
One way I can think of, is by defining $A_n\ln(A_n)=2^n$, but how do we extract the formula for $A_n$?
How can we compute a sequence $A_n$ of positive real numbers, such that $\displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{A_n\ln(A_n)}=1$?
One way I can think of, is by defining $A_n\ln(A_n)=2^n$, but how do we extract the formula for $A_n$?
The most ugly piece in the sum $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{A_n\log A_n}$ is the $\log(\cdot)$ in the denominator. If one want to construct an ansatz for the problem, one should look for something that get rid of this $\log(\cdot)$. The simplest choice is $A_n = \alpha^n$ for some $\alpha > 1$.
As a function of $\alpha$, we have
$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{A_n\log A_n} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{\alpha^n\log(\alpha^n)} = \frac{1}{\log\alpha}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{1}{\alpha}\right)^n\\ = -\frac{1}{\log\alpha}\log\left(1-\frac{1}{\alpha}\right) = 1 - \frac{\log(\alpha-1)}{\log \alpha} $$ If is then clear if we pick $\alpha = 2$, we will get $\displaystyle\;\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{A_n\log A_n} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{2^n\log(2^n)} = 1$.