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I am trying to solve this limit problem

$$\lim_{x\to 1} {(1-x)(1-x^2)....(1-x^{2n})\over[(1-x)(1-x^2)....(1-x^n)]^2}$$

I am not able to figure how to to convert it to a compact form. Any tips?

Adam Hughes
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user34304
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4 Answers4

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$\require{cancel}$

Consider pairing terms together

$$\lim_{x\to 1}{(1-x)(1-x^{n+1})\over (1-x)^2}\cdot\lim_{x\to 1}{(1-x^2)(1-x^{n+2})\over (1-x^2)^2}\cdot\ldots\cdot\lim_{x\to 1}{(1-x^n)(1-x^{2n})\over (1-x^n)^2}$$

From here use the usual factorization

$$1-x^k=(1-x)(1+x+x^2+\ldots +x^{k-1})$$

Then each individual limit,

$$\lim_{x\to 1}{(1-x^k)(1-x^{n+k})\over (1-x^k)^2}=\lim_{x\to 1}{\cancel{(1+x+\ldots +x^{k-1})}(1+x+\ldots+x^{n+k-1})\over (1+x+\ldots + x^{k-1})^{\cancel{2}}}={n+k\over k}$$

This gives a total answer of

$$\prod_{k=1}^n{n+k\over k}={(n+1)(n+2)\ldots 2n\over (1)(2)\ldots (n-1)(n)}$$

by reversing the order we multiply them in this gives

$$\prod_{k=1}^n {2n-k\over k}={(2n)(2n-1)\ldots (n+1)\over n(n-1)\ldots (3)(2)(1)}$$

multiplying top and bottom by $n!$ gives

$${(2n!)\over (n!)^2}={2n\choose n}$$


Fun fact: This is called a $q$-binomial coefficient and is of great interest in algebraic combinatorics, so if you have any interest in the methods used to prove this, you may find the subject interesting, as it is certainly rich and interesting.

Adam Hughes
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    Maybe it is a typo in the OP but it looks like you consider a different problem the last term in the numerator of the OP is $(1-x^2n)$ – Surb Aug 06 '14 at 15:01
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    @BeaumontTaz thanks for the heads up. I fixed the original problem typesetting as well. – Adam Hughes Aug 06 '14 at 15:07
  • I found this answer to be superb - thanks for the fun fact! – Matt Groff Aug 13 '14 at 03:51
  • @Matt Groff thanks, that's nice of you to say. I assume the upvote was also yours, so thanks twice! – Adam Hughes Aug 13 '14 at 03:54
  • You're welcome - I did upvote this. I think the fun facts are a neat idea. You have me interested more in algebraic combinatorics. Plus, this has me interested in your other answers, too. – Matt Groff Aug 13 '14 at 04:09
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Outline: Note that $\frac{1-x^k}{1-x}=1+x+x^2+\cdots +x^{k-1}$. As $x\to 1$, this has limit $k$.

So when we divide top and bottom by $(1-x)^{2n}$ we get on top a product with limit $(2n)!$. At the bottom we get a product with limit $(n!)^2$.

Thus the limit is the central binomial coefficient $\binom{2n}{n}$.

André Nicolas
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We have a factor of $1-x$ in every term on top and bottom and an equal number of terms. Therefore we can cancel.

Using the property that

$$(1-x^n)=(1-x)(1+x+x^2+\cdots+x^{n-1})$$

We can see now that

$$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{(1-x^n)}{1-x}=n$$

Thus

$$\frac{(2n)!}{n!n!}=\binom{2n}{n}$$

BeaumontTaz
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The $r(1\le r\le n)$th term is $$T_r=\lim_{x\to1}\frac{(1-x^{2r-1})(1-x^{2r})}{(1-x^r)^2}$$

$$=\lim_{x\to1}\frac{x^{2r-1}-1}{x-1}\cdot\lim_{x\to1}\frac{x^{2r}-1}{x-1}\frac1{\left(\lim_{x\to1}\dfrac{x^r-1}{x-1}\right)^2}$$

Now for integer $\displaystyle a>-1,\lim_{x\to1}\dfrac{x^a-1}{x-1}=\dfrac{d(x^a)}{dx}_{(\text{at }x=1)}=\cdots=a$

or $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to1}\dfrac{x^a-1}{x-1}=\lim_{x\to1}(1+x+x^2+\cdots+x^{a-1})=a$

$$\implies T_r=\frac{(2r-1)2r}{r^2}$$

Hope you can take it home from here