Consider the set $\mathfrak N$ of integers $n$ such that $\dfrac{a_1+a_{n+1}}{a_n}\lt\dfrac{1+n}n$. For every $n$ in $\mathfrak N$, one has $\dfrac{a_n}n-\dfrac{a_{n+1}}{n+1}\gt\dfrac{a_1}{n+1}$. Assume that $\mathfrak N$ contains every integer after some $n_0$, then, for every $k\geqslant n_0$, $$\dfrac{a_{n_0}}{n_0}\gt\dfrac{a_{n_0}}{n_0}-\dfrac{a_{k}}{k}\gt a_1\sum\limits_{i=n_0+1}^{k}\dfrac1{i}.$$ The lower bound diverges when $k\to\infty$ hence the hypothesis is absurd, that is, the set of $n$ such that $\dfrac{a_1+a_{n+1}}{a_n}\geqslant\dfrac{1+n}n$ is infinite. In particular, $\left(\dfrac{a_1+a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right)^n\geqslant\left(\dfrac{1+n}n\right)^n$ infinitely often. The limit of the RHS when $n\to\infty$ is $\mathrm e$, hence this proves the result.
Likewise, for every positive $c$, $$\limsup_{n\to\infty}\left(\dfrac{c+a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right)^n\geqslant\mathrm e.$$