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Question:

Let $P(x)$ be a polynomial satisfying $$P(k)=\cos{\dfrac{2k\pi}{n}},k=1,2,\cdots,n$$

Show that

$$\deg{P(x)}\ge n-1$$

I want to consider $$P(m+1)-P(m)=\cos{\dfrac{2(m+1)\pi}{n}}-\cos{\dfrac{2m\pi}{n}}=2\sin{\dfrac{\pi}{n}}\sin{\dfrac{2m+1\pi}{n}}$$ Maybe this can use mean value theorem for divided differences Or can we also prove $$P^{(n-1)}(x)\neq 0?$$ But I can't figure out how. Thank you.

math110
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1 Answers1

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Let $\Delta$ be the finite difference operator, $\Delta f(x)=f(x+1)-f(x)$.

Then, as you've shown,

$$\Delta P(m) = -2 \sin \frac{\pi}{n}\sin \frac{(2m+1)\pi}{n}$$

whenever $1\leq m \leq n-1$.

Similarly, we have

$$ \Delta^2P(m)=-2\sin\frac{\pi}{n}\left(\sin\frac{(2m+3)\pi}{n}-\sin\frac{(2m+1)\pi}{n}\right)=-2\sin\frac{\pi}{n}\left(2\sin\frac{\pi}{n}\cos\frac{(2m+2)\pi}{n}\right) $$

for $1 \leq m \leq n-2$;

$$ \Delta^3P(m)=-4\sin^2\frac{\pi}{n}\left(\cos\frac{(2m+4)\pi}{n}-\cos\frac{(2m+2)\pi}{n}\right)=8\sin^3\frac{\pi}{n}\sin\frac{(2m+3)\pi}{n} $$ for $1 \leq m \leq n-3$; and so on.

Continuing in this manner, it is convenient to define $$ \operatorname{trig}_k m=\begin{cases} \cos m && k\text{ even}\\ \sin m && k\text{ odd} \end{cases}$$ Then it follows by induction that $$ \Delta^k(m)=(-1)^{\lceil k/2 \rceil}2^k\sin^k\frac{\pi}{n}\operatorname{trig}_k \frac{(2m+k)\pi}{n} $$ for $1 \leq m \leq n-k$.

In particular,

\begin{eqnarray} \Delta^{n-1}(1)&=&(-1)^{\lceil (n-1)/2 \rceil}2^{n-1}\sin^{n-1}\frac{\pi}{n}\operatorname{trig}_{n-1}\frac{(n+1)\pi}{n}\\ &=&(-1)^{\lceil (n+1)/2 \rceil}2^{n-1}\sin^{n-1}\frac{\pi}{n}\operatorname{trig}_{n-1}\frac{\pi}{n} \end{eqnarray} can easily be seen to be nonzero for $n>1$: $\sin \frac{\pi}{n}$ only vanishes when $n=1$, $\cos \frac{\pi}{n}$ only vanishes when $n=2$, and when $n=2$ the formula involves $\operatorname{trig}_1 \frac{\pi}{2}=\sin \frac{\pi}{2}$.

If $n=1$, the problem statement is trivially true. But if $n>1$, we have just shown that the $(n-1)^{\rm st}$ finite difference of $P$ doesn't vanish everywhere. It follows that, if $P$ is a polynomial, it must have degree at least $n-1$.

Micah
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  • Thank you,It's nice,and maybe this problem can use derivative prove this – math110 Aug 21 '14 at 17:22
  • @chinamath: Absolutely! If you combine this calculation with the mean value theorem for divided differences, you actually get a proof that $P$ has a non-vanishing derivative of the appropriate order somewhere in $[0, 2\pi]$. – Micah Aug 21 '14 at 19:24
  • ,can you post it? Thank you – math110 Aug 22 '14 at 02:05
  • @chinamath: There's not a whole lot more to say beyond the computation in the answer. The mean value theorem for divided differences says precisely that the iterated difference I computed is equal to $\frac{P^{(n-1)}(x)}{(n-1)!}$ for some $x$ between the two farthest-apart points (that is, $2\pi/n$ and $2\pi$). – Micah Aug 22 '14 at 04:37