I know that De Moivre's Theorem does not necessarily work for non-integer powers.
The classic counter-example is by considering $\left (\cos \theta + i \sin \theta \right )^n=\cos n\theta + i \sin n \theta$ when $n=\frac{1}{2}$ and setting $\theta=0$ versus $\theta=2\pi$, which yield 1 and -1 respectively.
My question is, if this is the case, why is it that we can use the following to solve say $z^5=1$?
$z^5=\cos (\theta+2k\pi) + i \sin (\theta+2k\pi) $ where $k\in\mathbb{z}$
And then raising both sides to the power of $\frac{1}{5}$ etc?
Paul, but when I raise both sides to the 1/5th power, I can invoke DMT to make the argument of the RHS become $\frac{\theta+2k\pi}{5}$
– Trogdor Aug 21 '14 at 15:36