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Let $f_0>0$ be integrable on $[0,1]$, define $$f_n(x)=\sqrt{\int_0^x f_{n-1}(t)dt},\ n=1,2,\cdots.$$ Find the limit $$\lim_{n\to\infty}f_n(x),\ x\in [0,1].$$

I could suspect that the limit is $0$, but I could not prove it...

xldd
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  • I think you are right, considering $f_n(0)=0 \forall n$ and that taking the limit and derivating on both sides of the definition yields $f=0$ as the only solution – Frédéric Aug 22 '14 at 11:06

3 Answers3

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We notice for all $n>1$ that $f_n$ is increasing. Let $g(x)$ be the limit solution. It is easy to show all $f_n$ are bounded by some constant $c$ (We have $f_n(1)<\sqrt{f_{n-1}(1)}$), so $g$ exists (why $g$ exists is actually more technical, but rests on these facts).

We have: $g(x)=\sqrt{\int_0^x g(t)dt}$. $g^2(x)=\int_0^x g(t)dt$. $2g(x)g'(x)=g(x).$

So $g(x)=0$ or $g'(x)=1/2$. Apologies, excluding $g'(x)=1/2$ was hasty. Indeed, $g(x)=x/2$ works, and these are the only two solutions.

*Why is $f_n$ increasing and bounded for $n > 1$? $f_n>0 \ \ \forall n$ so $\int_0^x f_n(t)dt$ increasing for all n so $f_n(x)=\sqrt{\int_0^x f_{n-1}(t)dt}$ is increasing for $n\geq1$. Now $f_n$ increasing for $n \geq 1$ so $\int_0^x f_{n-1}(t)dt<(1-0)f_{n-1}(1)$ so $f_n(1)<\sqrt{f_{n-1}(1)}$ for $n \geq 2$.

ShakesBeer
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This is not really a full answer but I'd like to point out that the case $g'(x)\equiv 1/2$ is actually possible.

Start with $f_0\equiv 1$. Then $f_1(x)^2= x$, $f_2(x)^2=2/3\ x^{3/2}$ and in general we see that $f_n$ is of the form $f_n(x)=c_nx^{b_n}$ for some positive numbers $b_n,c_n\ge 0$.

Indeed, we may derive some recursive relations: $$ c_n^2x^{2b_n}=f_n(x)^2=\int_0^x f_{n-1}(t)dt = \int_0^xc_{n-1}t^{b_{n-1}} d t =\frac{c_{n-1}}{1+b_{n-1}}x^{1+b_{n-1}},$$ from which we get \begin{align*} 2b_n&=1+b_{n-1},\ \ b_0=0, \\ c_n^2&=\frac{c_{n-1}}{1+b_{n-1}}, c_0=1. \end{align*}

It is not overly difficult to establish that $b_n= 1-2^{-n}$ (anyway it is esasily proven by induction once one makes this "educated guess"). That leaves us the recursive relation $$c_0=1, \ \ c_n^2=\frac{c_{n-1}}{1+b_{n-1}}=\frac{c_{n-1}}{2(1-2^{-n})}.$$ Now it turns out that $c_n\to 1/2$ as $n\to\infty$ (giving exactly $g(x)= \lim_{n\to\infty}f_n(x)=x/2$!) To see this first note (again, say, by induction) that $c_n\ge 1/2$ for all $n$. Then estimate as follows:

\begin{align*} |c_n-1/2|&\le |c_n-1/2||c_n+1/2|=|c_n^2-1/4|\le |c_n^2-\frac{1/4}{1-2^{-n}}|+\frac{2^{-n-2}}{1-2^{-n}}\\ &= \frac{2^{-n-2}}{1-2^{-n}}+ \frac{1/2}{1-2^{-n}} |c_{n-1}-1/2|. \end{align*} From this it follows easily enough that $|c_n-1/2|\to 0$ as $n\to \infty$.

Thus, for some choices of $f_0$ the limit in question is $g(x)=1/2\ x$.

EDIT: As kelenner pointed out, there are more solutions than just $g=0$ or $g=x/2$.

In fact, let $g$ be an absolutely continuous function $g:[0,1]\to R$ satisfying $g(0)=0$ and $2g(x)g'(x)=g(x)$ for almost every $x\in [0,1]$. Then choosing $f_0= g$ yields $f_n=g$ for all $n$: if the claim is already shown up to some $n=k-1$ then $$f_{n+1}(x)^2=\int_0^xf_nd t=\int_0^xg d t =2\int_0^x g'g dt.$$ Using integration by parts one gets $$2\int_0^x g'g dt = 2g(x)^2-2\int_0^xg'gdt= 2g(x)^2- f_{n+1}(x)^2$$ from which $f_{n+1}= g$. A nontrivial example of such a function was given in the comment by kelenner.

Teri
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  • To show that the case $f_n\to g$ with $g(x)=x/2$ is possible, one can go faster: assume that $f_0=g$ then $f_n=g$ for every $n$ hence $f_n\to g$. // 2. Your argument to show that the case $f_n\to0$ is possible, is wrong. Starting from $f_0=a$ for any $a\gt0$ yields $f_n\to g$ by your own computations. Actually, starting from $f_0(x)=cx^b$ yields $f_n\to g$, for every $c\gt0$ and $b\geqslant0$.
  • – Did Aug 22 '14 at 14:11
  • Yes you are right on both points, as can be seen by examining the convergence of the recursively defined series for different values of $b_0,c_0$. I had the recursive relation $c_n^2=c_{n-1}/2$ in mind when I stated my erroneous claim.

    To be exact, in general one needs to prove $c_n\ge a$ for all $n$ and add the factor $1/2+a$ to the leftmost side of the estimate. I will remove the erroneous claim.

    – Teri Aug 22 '14 at 14:54
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    I add a remark: Let $u\in ]0,1[$. Let $h_u$ be such that $h_u(x)=0$ if $0\leq x\leq u$, and $h_u(x)=\frac{x-u}{2}$ if $x\geq u$. Clearly $h_u$ is continuous. One easily see that $h_u(x)=\sqrt{\int_0^x h_u(t)dt}$. So, there is a priori much more potential limits than the two functions $0$ and $x/2$. But perhaps the condition $f_0>0$ is important. – Kelenner Aug 22 '14 at 14:55
  • @Kelenner Definitely, since if $f_0=0$ on $(0,u)$ for some $u\gt0$ then $f_n=0$ on $(0,u)$, for every $n$. – Did Aug 22 '14 at 15:17
  • @did Yes, I agree; but how to exclude that the (eventual) limit $f$ of $f_n$ is zero on some $[0,u]$ and $(x-u)/2$ if $x\geq u$ ? – Kelenner Aug 22 '14 at 15:24
  • @Kelenner But I do not want to exclude it... Actually I think that you just described the possible limit points starting from $f_0\geqslant0$. – Did Aug 22 '14 at 23:07