let $x,y,z\in R$,and such $x>y>z$,and such $$(x-y)(y-z)(x-z)=16$$ find this follow minimum of the value $$I=\dfrac{1}{x-y}+\dfrac{1}{y-z}+\dfrac{1}{x-z}$$
My idea: since $$\dfrac{1}{x-y}+\dfrac{1}{y-z}+\dfrac{1}{x-z}=\dfrac{x-z}{(x-y)(y-z)}+\dfrac{1}{x-z}$$ so $$I=\dfrac{(x-z)^2}{16}+\dfrac{1}{x-z}=\dfrac{(x-z)^2}{16}+\dfrac{1}{2(x-z)}+\dfrac{1}{2(x-z)}\ge\dfrac{3}{4}$$
if and only if $(x-z)=2$,so $(x-y)(y-z)=8$ But we know $$(x-z)^2=[[(x-y)+(y-z)]^2\ge 4(x-y)(y-z)$$ so this is wrong,
Now I let $x-z=t$ it is clear $t\ge 4$,so $$\dfrac{t^2}{16}+\frac{1}{t}=f(t)\Longrightarrow f'(t)\ge 0,t\ge 4$$ so $$f(t)\ge f(4)=\dfrac{5}{4}$$
My Question: I fell my methods is ugly,I think this problem have other simple methods.Thank you