"For if $ A=\bigcup A^{'}_{n}$ with $A^{'}_{n} \in M_F(\mu)$, write $A_1=A^{'}_{1} $, and $$ A_n=(A^{'}_1\cup ...\cup A^{'}_n)-(A^{'}_n \cup ... \cup A^{'}_{n-1})$$ $(n=2,3,4,...)$.
Then $$ A=\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n$$ I can't understand why $A_n$ is expressed like the above? Should the correct one be $$ A_n=A^{'}_n-(A^{'}_1 \cup ... \cup A^{'}_{n-1})$$
$$ A_n=A^{'}n-(A^{'}_1 \cup ... \cup A^{'}{n-1})$$ why?
– JamesWang Sep 01 '14 at 06:24$$ A_3=A^{'}3-(A^{'}_1 \cup A^{'}{2})$$ are both equivalent ?
– JamesWang Sep 01 '14 at 06:40