I'm looking over Binomial random variables and I understand that
$ \sum\limits_{k=0}^n k\binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k} = np $ from $\mathrm{Bin}(n,p)$
However, I don't understand how, if $S_n = u^{2T-n}$, why we get
$E[S_n] = \sum\limits_{k=0}^n u^{2k-n}\binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k}$
Thank You