2

No response to this on Physics Stack Exchange, so I'm hoping for better luck here.

My question is, can anyone tell me where I'm going wrong trying to use the equation of geodesic deviation$$\frac{D^{2}\xi^{\mu}}{D\lambda^{2}}+R_{\phantom{\mu}\beta\alpha\gamma}^{\mu}\xi^{\alpha}\frac{dx^{\beta}}{d\lambda}\frac{dx^{\gamma}}{d\lambda}=0$$ to show that on the surface of a unit radius sphere two particles separated by initial distance $d$, starting from the equator and travelling north (ie on lines of constant $\phi$) at equal speed will have a separation $s$ given by$$s=d\sin\theta?$$ This is similar to https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/107421/geodesic-devation-on-a-two-sphere except that question was solved using simple spherical geometry.

My plan was to first find $\frac{D^{2}\xi^{\mu}}{D\lambda^{2}}$ by calculating the Riemann tensor part$$R_{\phantom{\mu}\beta\alpha\gamma}^{\mu}\xi^{\alpha}\frac{dx^{\beta}}{d\lambda}\frac{dx^{\gamma}}{d\lambda}.$$ And then find $\frac{D^{2}\xi^{\mu}}{D\lambda^{2}}$ by using the absolute derivative $$\frac{DV^{\alpha}}{d\lambda}=\frac{dV^{\alpha}}{d\lambda}+V^{\gamma}\Gamma_{\gamma\beta}^{\alpha}\frac{dx^{\beta}}{d\lambda},$$ and take the second derivative of this. Next I hoped to try to juggle the results to show the separation $s=\xi^{\phi}$ as a function of $\theta$.

The line element for spherical coordinates$$l^{2}=dr^{2}+r^{2}d\theta^{2}+r^{2}\sin^{2}\theta d\phi^{2}$$ for a great circle of constant $\phi$ on a sphere of unit radius reduces to $$dl^{2}=d\theta^{2}$$ giving $\frac{d\theta}{dl}=\frac{d\theta}{d\lambda}=1$ and $\frac{d\phi}{dl}=\frac{d\phi}{d\lambda}=0$.

Expanding out the Reimann tensor components gives:$$\frac{D^{2}\xi^{\theta}}{D\lambda^{2}}=0$$ and$$\frac{D^{2}\xi^{\phi}}{D\lambda^{2}}=-\xi^{\phi}.$$

The absolute derivative for $\Gamma_{\theta\phi}^{\phi}=\Gamma_{\phi\theta}^{\phi}=\frac{\cos\theta}{\mathbf{\mathbf{\sin\theta}}}$ is$$\frac{D\xi^{\phi}}{d\lambda}=\frac{d\xi^{\phi}}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\theta}\Gamma_{\theta\phi}^{\phi}\frac{d\phi}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\phi}\Gamma_{\phi\phi}^{\phi}\frac{d\phi}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\theta}\Gamma_{\theta\theta}^{\phi}\frac{d\theta}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\phi}\Gamma_{\phi\theta}^{\phi}\frac{d\theta}{d\lambda}=\frac{d\xi^{\phi}}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\phi}\frac{\cos\theta}{\mathbf{\mathbf{\sin\theta}}}.$$

And for $\Gamma_{\phi\phi}^{\theta}=\sin\theta\cos\theta$ $$\frac{D\xi^{\theta}}{d\lambda}=\frac{d\xi^{\theta}}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\phi}\Gamma_{\phi\phi}^{\theta}\frac{d\phi}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\phi}\Gamma_{\phi\theta}^{\theta}\frac{d\theta}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\theta}\Gamma_{\theta\phi}^{\theta}\frac{d\phi}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\theta}\Gamma_{\theta\theta}^{\theta}\frac{d\theta}{d\lambda}=\frac{d\xi^{\theta}}{d\lambda}.$$

However, $$\frac{D\xi^{\phi}}{d\lambda}=\frac{d\xi^{\phi}}{d\lambda}+\xi^{\phi}\frac{\cos\theta}{\mathbf{\mathbf{\sin\theta}}}$$ doesn't look right as it blows up when $\theta=0$. Any suggestions where I might be going wrong?

Peter4075
  • 849

1 Answers1

0

The geodesic connecting the two north-moving particles does not ly on a constant $\phi$ coordinate line.

Xipan Xiao
  • 2,607
  • The two particles are moving north on two different lines of longitude. A line of longitude is a line of constant $\phi$. At any time both particles are on the same $\theta$ coordinate. – Peter4075 Sep 05 '14 at 15:24
  • The latitude line is not a great circle unless it is the equator. – Xipan Xiao Sep 05 '14 at 15:54
  • Two particles are on the equator and then move north along different lines of longitude. Every line of longitude is part (half) of a great circle. Because both particles are moving at the same speed, at any particular time they will be on the same $\theta$ coordinate, ie they will be on the same latitude line. – Peter4075 Sep 05 '14 at 16:09
  • Did you read my comments at all? The latitude line is not a great circle. – Xipan Xiao Sep 05 '14 at 16:33
  • No, of course it isn't. But I don't see how that is relevant to my question. – Peter4075 Sep 05 '14 at 16:37
  • I think you mean "a constant $\theta$ coordinate line". In Peter's question, $\theta$ represents latitude while $\phi$ is longitude. –  Sep 05 '14 at 18:15
  • Thanks. @XipanXiao - does that now make more sense? – Peter4075 Sep 05 '14 at 19:07
  • then when you wrote $dl^2=d\theta^2$, you're examining a geodesic along a longitude, why are you doing that? – Xipan Xiao Sep 05 '14 at 19:30
  • Because both particles are following geodesics along lines of longitude. I'm a self-studier by the way, so apologies if I've got this completely wrong. – Peter4075 Sep 06 '14 at 06:58