Claim: I can traverse an $n \times n$ matrix in $O(n)$.
"Proof": Clearly, this is true for $n=1$. Now suppose this is true for $n-1$. Then given an $n \times n$ matrix, traverse the upper left $(n-1)\times(n-1)$ matrix in $O(n-1)$ time, and then the remaining row and column in $O(2n)$ time. This gives $O(n-1) + O(2n) = O(n)$ time.
What's wrong with this?
Think about the affirmation that you are proving for n=1; you state that the time to transverse a matrix is bounded by c n for some real c as n-> infinity when n=1?
– PenasRaul Sep 05 '14 at 16:28