First of all, let asume wlog $a=1$, otherwhise take $\tilde u = u$, $\tilde v = av$
$$f(\tilde u+\tilde v) = f(\tilde u) + f(\tilde v) + P\left(\tilde u, \frac{\tilde v}{a}\right)$$
and $P\left(\tilde u, \frac{\tilde v}{a}\right)$ is also a polynomial of degree $n$ in $\tilde u,\tilde v$. From the functional equation we have
$$f(x-y) = f(x) + f(-y) + P(x,-y)$$
Lets take $g\in C_0^\infty(\mathbb R)$ such that
$$\int_{\mathbb R} g(y) dy = 1$$,then
$$f(x-y)g(y) = f(x)g(y) + f(-y)g(y) + g(y)P(x,-y)$$
Also $f$ is continous so $f\in L_{loc}^1(\mathbb R)$ hence $f*g\in C^\infty(\mathbb R)$ and we can integrate the last equation
$$f*g(x) = f(x)+ \int_{\mathbb R}f(-y)g(y)dy + \int_{\mathbb R} g(y)P(x,-y) dy$$
$$f(x)=f*g(x) - \int_{\mathbb R}f(-y)g(y)dy - \int_{\mathbb R} g(y)P(x,-y) dy$$
the three function in the right hand side are $C^{\infty}$ so $f\in C^{\infty}$
and the proof continues as Aditya sugest for example.