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Let $R$ be a Euclidean domain with the euclidean norm $N$. Is $N$ unique?

Is there any trivial counterexample? or is that statement is somehow true?

user26857
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Snufsan
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  • At least, there are different Euclidean functions in general, see http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/763043/what-euclidean-functions-can-the-ring-of-integers-be-endowed-with/763428#763428. – Dietrich Burde Sep 08 '14 at 13:58

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I Found a counter example:

For the ring of polynomials, we can take $N_1(p)=\deg(p)$ and $N_2(p)=2^{\deg(p)}$.

user26857
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Snufsan
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