I tried to do an induction proof and I've played around with it for about an hour and haven't really gotten anywhere. For my base case, I let $n=1$ and got $(a-b) \geq (a-b)$, however when I tried to show $a^{k+1}-b^{k+1} \geq (k+1)b^{(k+1)-1}(a-b)$, I got stuck.
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Hint: Apply the mean value theorem on the function $f(x)=x^n$
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1A really clever way to prove this,well done! – Mathemagician1234 Sep 16 '14 at 18:27