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I'm trying to show that $(\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}, \, \times) \not \cong (\mathbb{C} \setminus \{ 0 \}, \, \times)$ as follows: note that there exists an element (namely $i$) in $\mathbb{C} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ that has order $4$, but no element of $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ has order $4$.

I have the intuition for why this is true -- the only element in $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ that has order not equal to $1$ or $\infty$ is $-1$, which has order $2$.

Can anyone think of a way to show rigorously that no element in $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ has order $4$?

Alex Wertheim
  • 20,278
Ryan
  • 101

2 Answers2

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Hint: how many solutions does $x^{4}-1 = 0$ have in $\mathbb{R}$? What are those solutions, and their respective orders in $\mathbb{R}^{\times}$?

Alex Wertheim
  • 20,278
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You could verify that if $|x|>1$ then $|x^n|>1$, so $x$ does not have finite order. Similarly if $|x|<1$, then $|x^n|<1$, so again $x$ doesn't have finite order. So your intuition is correct. The only finite order elements are $\pm1$.