I'm trying to show that $(\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}, \, \times) \not \cong (\mathbb{C} \setminus \{ 0 \}, \, \times)$ as follows: note that there exists an element (namely $i$) in $\mathbb{C} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ that has order $4$, but no element of $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ has order $4$.
I have the intuition for why this is true -- the only element in $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ that has order not equal to $1$ or $\infty$ is $-1$, which has order $2$.
Can anyone think of a way to show rigorously that no element in $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}$ has order $4$?