Is $|\int_a^b f(x)dx| \ge |f(b) - f(a)|$ true?
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No, it isn't always true. Try $f(x)=x$.
$\int_0^1 x dx = \frac{1}{2}$
but $f(1)-f(0)=1-0=1$.
MathStudent
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$f(x)=-x$ for $x \in [-1,1]$
We have that $f(-1)=1$ and $f(1)=-1$ so $|f(-1)-f(1)|=|1+1|=2$
And $\int_{-1}^1 f dx = 0$.
anon2093787
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