Wikipedia's statement of the implicit function theorem requires that the original function
be continuously differentiable. $\:$ Is it known whether or not that condition can be removed?
If it can't be completely removed, can it be replaced with
"differentiable function whose derivative is bounded"?
Asked
Active
Viewed 173 times
4
-
1Highly related: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/75049/does-the-inverse-function-theorem-hold-for-everywhere-differentiable-maps – PVAL-inactive Sep 23 '14 at 19:40
-
1I have cross-posted this to mathoverflow. $;$ – Sep 29 '14 at 04:04