This question is motivated by here.
I don't see why the monotone condition is necessarily. Especailly if $a_n \geq 0$. My answer is as follows because $(a_n^2)$ converges, we can find $N : n > N \implies |a_n|^2 < \epsilon \implies |a_n| < \epsilon.$ I am guessing this only proves the absolute convergence and not the convergence of $a_n$.