Cartesian to Polar Coordinates

Question

If I want to change the following integral from Cartesians to Polars:

$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty\int_{-\infty}^\infty (x-a)^2+(y-b)^2\,\,dx\,dy$$

in a way such that we are centered at $(a,b)$, so $(x-a)^2+(y-b)^2=r^2$,

Is the polar form simply $$\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^\infty r^3 \,\,dr\,d\theta$$?

There's a small typo in the equation of the circle: it should be $(x-a)^2+(y-b)^2 = r^2$. Nevertheless you got that right in the integral. — Srivatsan, Dec 27 '11 at 09:48
Can this kind of "Is ... correct/true?" question be improved further? — , Dec 27 '11 at 13:19

score 2 · Accepted Answer · answered Dec 27 '11 at 09:59

2

The answer to your question:

Yes.

answered Dec 27 '11 at 09:59

hwrdprkns

1 Answers1