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One less than a perfect square is prime if and only if the prime is 3. Is this really, really true and do we have proof?

Ant
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  • Seeing that a restatement of Legendre's conjecture can be made based on the answer to this question, why is it on hold? – Jeffrey Young Sep 30 '14 at 16:08

2 Answers2

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Hint: $n^2-1=(n-1)(n+1)$

Should be obvious enough.

fixedp
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Yes. In general, we may factor $$n^2 - 1 = (n + 1) (n - 1),$$ and both factors are larger that $1$ provided $n > 2$, or equivalently, that $n^2 - 1 > 3$.

Travis Willse
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