One less than a perfect square is prime if and only if the prime is 3. Is this really, really true and do we have proof?
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Seeing that a restatement of Legendre's conjecture can be made based on the answer to this question, why is it on hold? – Jeffrey Young Sep 30 '14 at 16:08
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Hint: $n^2-1=(n-1)(n+1)$
Should be obvious enough.
fixedp
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Expand the brackets on the right hand side if you have trouble believing this. – fixedp Sep 28 '14 at 08:27
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Yep, as the equation suggests, $(n-1)(n+1)$ is another way of writing $n^2-1$. – fixedp Sep 28 '14 at 08:35
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2This factorisation is true for any real number. The point is that $n^2-1$ has two factors $(n-1)$ and $(n+1)$, so it is prime iff either $(n-1)$ or $(n+1)$ is $1$. – fixedp Sep 28 '14 at 08:59
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Yes. In general, we may factor $$n^2 - 1 = (n + 1) (n - 1),$$ and both factors are larger that $1$ provided $n > 2$, or equivalently, that $n^2 - 1 > 3$.
Travis Willse
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