We defined the Bernstein polynomials as following $$ p_{nk} \ = \ \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} x^k(1-x)^{n-k}$$ I have to show this: $$ \sum_{k=0}^n \left(x - \frac kn\right)^2 p_{nk}(x) \ = \ \frac{x(1-x)}{n} $$
My own work
It is easy to show that $$ (1-x+tx)^n \ = \ \sum_{k=0}^n p_{nk}(x)t^k $$ From this I have deduced that $$ \sum_{k=0}^n p_{nk}(x) = 1 \qquad \text{and} \qquad \sum_{k=0}^n kp_{nk}(x) = nx \qquad \text{and} \qquad \sum_{k=0}^n k(k-1)p_{nk}(x) = n(n-1)x^2 $$
Now by dividing and plugging in I got that:
$$ \frac{1}{n}(x-x^2) \ = \ \frac{1}{n^2(n-1)} \left((n-1)\sum_{k=0}^n kp_{nk}(x) + \sum_{k=0}^n k(k-1)p_{nk}(x)\right) $$ Which equals $$ \frac{1}{n^2(n-1)} \sum_{k=0}^n k p_{nk}(x)\left( (n-1) - (k-1)\right) \ = \ \frac{1}{n^2(n-1)} \sum_{k=0}^n k p_{nk}(x)(n-k) $$ The left hand side is equal to this though: $$ \sum_{k=0}^n \left(x^2 - \frac {2k}n+ \frac{k^2}{n^2}\right) p_{nk}(x) $$ And these things don't look equal. Please help me!