I think that #1 is an unfair question, because there is nothing to prove. For if we can assume that
$$\cos^2\theta+ \sin^2\theta=1$$
$$\tan^2\theta+ 1=\sec^2\theta$$
$$\text{and }\cot^2\theta+ 1=\csc^2\theta$$
Then it should be natural to assume that
$$\sec^2\theta+\csc^2\theta=\sec^2\theta\csc^2\theta$$
Consider a right triangle with an acute angle $\theta$. Let the hypotenuse be of length $c$, the side adjacent to $\theta$ be of length $a$, and the side opposite angle $\theta$ be of length b.
By the Pythagorean theorem we have
$$\begin{array}{ll}a^2+b^2=c^2&(1)\end{array}$$
Dividing (1) by $c^2$ we have
$$\cos^2\theta+ \sin^2\theta=1$$
Dividing (1) by $a^2$ we have
$$1+\tan^2\theta = \sec^2\theta$$
Dividing (1) by $b^2$ we have
$$\cot^2\theta + 1= \csc^2\theta$$
Multiplying (1) by $\frac{c^2}{a^2b^2}$ we have
$$\frac{c^2}{b^2}+\frac{c^2}{a^2}=\frac{c^2}{a^2}\cdot\frac{c^2}{b^2}$$
$$\csc^2\theta+\sec^2\theta=\sec^2\theta\csc^2\theta$$
$$ \frac{1}{cos^2x} + \frac{1}{sin^2x} $$
$$ sin^2x + cos^2x $$
and I dont know what is the next and if am I doing right.
– user2936034 Oct 08 '14 at 12:14