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If I have a matrix $A$ and $B$ such that $AB+BA=0$

is it true that $A^2B^3=B^2A^3$?

I think that it is false.

dab
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2 Answers2

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It is false. Take $$A=\left(\begin{array}{cc}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right),\qquad B=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1\end{array}\right),$$ then we have $AB+BA=0$, but also $A^2=B^2=1$ so that $A^2B^3=B$ and $B^2A^3=A$.

Start wearing purple
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4

Similarly to O.L.'s answer, we have the quaternions $ij+ji=k-k=0$, but $i^2j^3=j$ and $j^2i^3=i$.

Chris Culter
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