In a problem we consider a cut of $\mathbb{Q}$ a subset $A\subset\mathbb{Q}$ that fulfills:
$A\neq\emptyset$
$\forall (q,q')\in A\times\mathbb{Q},\,q'<q\Rightarrow q'\in A$
$\forall q\in A,\,\exists q'\in A,\,q<q'$
In a question of an problem, I'm asked to prove that $A_\sqrt{2}=\left\{p\in\mathbb{Q},\,p^2<2\right\}$ is a cut of $\mathbb{Q}$.
Well since $1\in A_\sqrt{2}$ we have $A_\sqrt{2}\neq\emptyset$.
If we take the numbers $1$ and $-2$, we have $1\in A_\sqrt{2}$ and $(-2)\in\mathbb{Q}$ and $-2w1$, but $(-2)\not\in A_\sqrt{2}$ because $(-2)^2=4\ge 2$ and so:$$\exists(q,q')\in A_\sqrt{2}\times\mathbb{Q},\,q'<q\vee q'\not\in A_\sqrt{2}$$
Then $A_\sqrt{2}$ isn't a cut of $\mathbb{Q}$. Please I'm I wrong? Where's the mistake?
Thank you.
By the way, in this article of Wikipedia about the Construction of the real numbers, it's said:
"A real number $r$ is any subset of the set $\mathbb{Q}$ of rational numbers that fulfills the following conditions:
$r$ is not empty
$r\neq\mathbb{Q}$
$r$ is closed downwards. In other words, for all $x,y^\in\mathbb{Q}$ such that $x<y$, if $y\in r$ then $x\in r$
$r$ contains no greatest element. In other words, there is no $x\in r$ such that for all $y\in r$, $y\le x$"
This definition isn't different from the one in the problem, except that $r\neq\mathbb{Q}$ wasn't said, a condition that I think important.
Anyway, after that it's said:
"As an example of a Dedekind cut representing an irrational number, we may take the positive square root of $2$. This can be defined by the set $A=\left\{x\in\mathbb{Q},\,x<0\vee x\times x<2\right\}$.
Here again, if we take $-1$ instead of $1$ and we take $-3$ we find that $A$ isn't a real number.