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Suppose $f:{\bf R}^2 \rightarrow {\bf R}$ is once differentiable at a point $p$. Does it follow that $f_{xy}$ (the derivative of $f $ w.r.t to $x$ and then w.r.t to $y$) exist at $p$?

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TheGeometer
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1 Answers1

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No, try $f(x,y)=x\cdot|y|$ at $p=(0,0)$.

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